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Old 06.26.2008, 12:43 PM   #1
m1rr0r dash
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when reading Plato in English, one encounters the words "the gods" and "God," sometimes in close proximity. in many other places of course, myriad gods are mentioned by name.

in my best understanding the Athenians were polytheistic and would have no need for a word meaning "God," unless that is the proper name of a god.

is this a case of a translator proselytizing by inserting the notion of a Christian god into a text in which such a notion has no place? or is there some ancient Greek word which meant "a single omnipotent deity who oversaw everything" other than the name of Zeus, which as a proper name should be left untranslated?

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evidence that the translator(s) may have been misguided or simply morons:

"For measurements, money, etc., the Greek terms have been substituted for modern equivalents (such as furlong and shilling)."
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